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I have read an article saying that the Asuras are historically referring to the people of Assyria and so Devas may also be refer to some kind of people historically. What are your thoughts about this. If my case is true, then to whom does Devas may refer to?

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    Please link the article if possible.
    – Vishvam
    Sep 11, 2017 at 12:34
  • So you want to know if Devas can also be linked with some particular group of people living on earth?
    – Rickross
    Sep 12, 2017 at 4:58
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    Possible duplicate of What is the difference between Devas and Asuras?
    – iammilind
    Sep 12, 2017 at 22:10
  • @iammilind It is not duplicate. OP wants correlation between people living on earth to Asuras and devas.
    – The Destroyer
    Sep 13, 2017 at 5:50
  • "What are your thoughts about this" @TheDestroyer -- technically this statement makes it an opinion based. However, should we ignore that. Even in that case it's duplicate. Deva-s and Asura-s are already explained in this answer, which is linked to the linked duplicate. Since it's clear who are Deva-s and Asura-s, it's redundant to ask their historical context with respect to places on earth. Let's see what other people feel about this Qn.
    – iammilind
    Sep 13, 2017 at 5:56

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Yes, Asur and Deva were historical figures. RigVeda described both. Asur belonged to an earlier age whose genesis is not dealt with in detail. But the genesis of Deva is more than explicit. The real problem lies in the interpretation of RigVeda and understanding the real historical themes it contains. In recent times many scholars have started to treat RigVeda as historical document in order to describe history of ancient India often refer a historical event - "the battle of ten kings" (ref. RV.7.18 (1-25). But they have to go a long way to shade away the connotations held by later scripture about RigVeda which are often contradictory to RigVedic dictum. Not only Assyria, but entire old world namely Sumer, Mesopotamia, Canaan, Persia, Greek and even Egpt seem to be inter-related and influenced by a comman single source and our RigVeda stands to be closure of that. But we have to reveal RigVeda in proper manner discarding the notion later scripture forces upon us that they are the only way to go up to RigVeda for we can not understand 'Asura' properly if we approach RigVeda with it's meaning as 'Rakshas'. To add your information, there is was a great city ' Asur' in ancient Mesopotamia.

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    Thank you sir, for your reply. do you have any proof for your theory? if yes, then please share it with me. i think Devas are the common term used to refer the Isralites and Asuras are the people who oppressed them. I don't have any secular proof for this. what did you think about this?
    – Nadhiya
    Oct 29, 2017 at 8:36
  • Your thinking is in a right way but a vague parallel. I am doing research precisely on these topics and going to write book so can't share details of proof. Bit I will try to answer your queries if you post them on this site. Try to learn RigVeda Asura came first and Deva emerged out of them.not from later Hindu scripture which portray them opposites. By the way there is no secular or communal proof - if I give proof that the cult of pillar among Jews have a parallel in RigVeda would you call it a secular proof ? Oct 29, 2017 at 11:02
  • Sir,can you share the parallel between the pillar cult and Rig Veda? By the way I searched in the net to know about cult of pillar.I couldn't find any. Can you please share any that gives info regarding that.
    – Nadhiya
    Oct 30, 2017 at 14:57
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    @Nadhiya how can you find it on net when no body has written about it? Now I understood what you want. Try to find the names of RigVedic gods like Indra etc on the clay tablets depicting the treaty between Hittite and Mittani kings of Canaanite region around 1400 BCE. It's available on net. And then try to understand the common features of all ancient cultures surrounding this region, then you'll be able to understand - how the cult of pillar emerged from 'Pillar of Fire & Clouds' and their relation with RigVeda Oct 30, 2017 at 18:50
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    Don't forget about the Zoroastrian culture between Bharat and Mesopotamia. They flipped the roles of "ahura" and "daeva." Surely if Ashura refers to the city in Mesopotamia, there must be a good reason for the role reversals East and West of the Sulaiman Mountains Mar 31, 2018 at 19:46

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