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Does praying or worshipping with the meanings of Mantras (or translation) in other languages give an equivalent results?

For example praying the original Gayatri Mantra and praying it's meaning in other languages say in Hindi give same result?

It could be any mantra.

marked as duplicate by Sarvabhouma, DirghaChintayanti, Pratik Bhat, ABcDexter, The Destroyer Nov 26 '17 at 15:58

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  • Possible this question already been answered.-.hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/13874/… – SwiftPushkar Nov 26 '17 at 7:51
  • See. @The Destroyer's answer. – SwiftPushkar Nov 26 '17 at 7:52
  • 2
    It is the sound, the 'vibration', which gives a mantra its power. It does need to be chanted in Sanskrit. If you know the meaning of the mantra, better, the intonation must be correct, knowing the meaning is not necessary. The vibration which it will work on you subtly is what counts. You get wet whether you fall into a pool of water, jump into it, or are pushed into it. – Swami Vishwananda Nov 26 '17 at 9:56

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