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It seems to be a huge deal for vaishnava luminaries that Siva received the Ganga in his locks and it is supposed to have originated from Vishnu's feet. See for example Vedanta Desika's

http://acharya.org/v/SharanagatiDeepika/SharanagatiDeepika-19.html

Mahabharata says that in the three worlds nobody except Siva could receive Ganga as she descended. So Siva blessed his devotee Bhageeratha by accepting Ganga.

Why is it Krishna-paratvam when Krishna washes Sudama's feet but not Siva-paratvam for receiving Ganga in his locks?

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  • If you want to have a conversation you can visit Hinduism community chat rooms too – Rakesh Joshi Nov 27 '17 at 3:29
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    Ganga was born from Shiva first and then Shiva gave it to Brahma. Brahma sprayed some portion of Ganga on Vamana's feet and some portion of that Ganga came to Jata of Shiva. Chapter 3, Gautami Mahatmya of Brahma Purana mentions it. – The Destroyer Nov 27 '17 at 4:10
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"Ganga was born from Shiva first and then Shiva gave it to Brahma. Brahma sprayed some portion of Ganga on Vamana's feet and some portion of that Ganga came to Jata of Shiva. Gautami Mahatmya of Brahma Purana mentions it." @The Destroyer

Innumerable Srivaishnavites cite the Ganga's advent from Vishnu's foot/feet to "jata shankari" (as Tulsi das put it) as evidence of "Vishnu Paratvam". But not one scripture cites the whole journey. We have Siva receiving the Ganga and also Vamana's feet being sprayed or his foot piercing the dome of the universe to release the Ganga but these are unconnected events in the puranas. They have been connected only after they have been written up separately. If I stepped into a river and at some unspecified later time the river wet someone's hair - it is is not necessarily true that he is receiving my "footwash" as they say in Indian English.

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  • You should cite some sources also. It makes answer authentic & standard. – ㅤㅤㅤㅤㅤ Nov 27 '17 at 14:52

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