It is believed by the vedantins that the upanishad are called as veda-anta because they are the concluding part of the vedas.

So my question is

If there is something called as vedanta then what is



Veda-Madhya etc?

Are there any references for the same?

  • Vedanta is not end of Veda. It is end of Knowledge (although veda means knoweldge). Vedanta helps to get AtmaJnana which leads to BrahmaJnana and thus ends the knowledge.
    – The Destroyer
    Dec 17, 2017 at 17:36
  • @TheDestroyer please re read the question. I.said it's believed to be the concluding portion of vedas.if vedanta.means jnanam then it should be called as beginning of jnanam or end of ignorance. Dec 17, 2017 at 17:38
  • This won't be answered because there's nothing called VedAdi :D
    – Rickross
    Dec 18, 2017 at 5:53

2 Answers 2


I'm not sure whether there exists a seperate portion called vedAdi or Veda Madhya in Vedas or not. However there is a word called 'vedAdi' in Taittariya Aranyaka of YajurVeda in the sense as beginning of Vedas:

यो वेदादौ स्वर प्रोक्तो वेदान्ते च प्रतिष्ठित ।
तस्य प्रकृतिलीनस्य यः परस्सः महेश्वर ।। (YajurVeda Taiitariya Aranyaka 10.12.3)

He who is spoken in the beginning of the Vedas (vedAdi) and who is also established in end portion of Vedas (vedAnte), On whom the whole Prakirti merges finally, He is Lord Maheswara.

  • if i am not wrong this says that vedaadi and vedaanta is nothing but same thing. I.e pranava. So upanishads separately being vedanta is not mentioned it vedas but is views of later acharyas. Dec 18, 2017 at 11:22
  • This also hints that vedadi and vedanta.are not different and hence vedas should be taken as a.whole and not in isolation. Dec 18, 2017 at 11:23

Though literally "VedAnta" means "End of Veda", it should be interpreted as Beyond Veda. Because "end" is also a part of Vedas.

VedAnta is an umbrella term for various philosophies and is not limited to Upanishada-s. Hence, I will concentrate on "VedAnta" in general.
Bhagavad Gita is also considered as a "VedAnta", because it doesn't talk about worldly matters, like 'what or what not - to do'. Rather it discusses the final destination, which is beyond every worlds (loka-s).

Here is that verse, which supports why, "VedAnta = Beyond Veda":

BG 2.45 - Veda-s are subjected to only 3 modes of material nature (Sattva, Rajas, Tamas); O Arjuna, become free of these 3 modes, free of duality, ever situated in "constant-ness"; free of gaining support [and] self sustained.

The lord suggests Arjuna to be beyond traditional Veda-s viz. VedAnta. And attain the state of non-duality, viz. Advaita.
[Note: There is no mention in Gita, if Krishna referred Purva/Uttara MimAnsa of Vedas.]

  • Lol if it's beyond veda.then it's not a part of veda isn't it?.so technically vedanta is not veda. I am ok to accept that vedanta is not veda. But something else Dec 18, 2017 at 13:29
  • @RakeshJoshi, yes you understood it correct. "VedAnta" cannot be part of "Veda". The proof is Bhagavad Gita, which discusses on liberation. While Veda-s primarily discuss on 3 modes (Sattva, Rajas, Tamas). Now some people say that, Veda also discuss on liberation. My view here is that, it might have been added later for the sake completeness. Because 3 modes and liberation can't be taught in a same breathe. It's like teaching about marriage & divorce in the same breathe. :-) During Gita, Krishna just describes those 3 modes, but never prefers anyone mode over the other.
    – iammilind
    Dec 18, 2017 at 13:34
  • 2
    I think u are mistaken here. BG has nothing to do with Vedanta. Vedanta means Upanishad. OP is asking about that.
    – Rickross
    Dec 18, 2017 at 16:16
  • 1
    I first time saw "Beyond Veda"! It's Vedanta, not Vedatita. Have you referred English translation by Gambhirananda? Also Adi Shankaracharya's Bhashya says "For those who....."
    – Pandya
    Dec 18, 2017 at 16:34
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    @iammilind That Vedanta is a philosophy. It's one of the Shad Darsanas. Here OP means Upanishad only by Vedanta.
    – Rickross
    Dec 18, 2017 at 17:17

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