Vedic Age and Hindu Timeline

Question

It is said in Wikipedia that

The Vedic period or Vedic age (c. 1500 – c. 600 BCE) is the period in the history of the Indian subcontinent intervening between the end of the urban Indus Valley Civilization, and a second urbanisation which began in c. 600 BCE.

Other sources/scholars mention 1200 BCE and nearby.

My question is: isn't "Vedic Age" meant to be since the beginning? Because, since Indus Valley was during the Kali Yuga (3300–1300 BCE; mature period 2600–1900 BCE), the preceding Yugas are by default, Vedic in nature. So then what is this new and revised "Vedic Age" which came after Indus Valley?

Also, if Kali Yuga started in 3102 BCE, then how come Indus Valley started from 3300 BCE? Or did the Indus Valley start during Dvapara Yuga?

Can anyone explain this discrepancy between Puranic/Shastric timeline and the timeline according to today's recorded history?

Answer 1

The beginning of Kaliyug. (3102 BC)

Starting with the age of Kali Yuga, it is 4,32,000 years. Till now 5115 years have passed. According to the Surya Siddhanta, Kali Yuga began at midnight (00:00) on 18 February 3102 BCE. This is also considered the date on which Lord Krishna left the earth to return to his heavenly abode.

Kaliyug and Mahabharat war. Lord Krishna ascended to His Divine abode at the end of dwapar yug and immediately kaliyug started in 3102 BC. Krishn lived for over 125 years. He descended on the earth planet in 3228 BC. The Pandavas, after winning the Mahabharat war, ruled for 36 years and 8 months. Accordingly, the date of Mahabharat war comes to 3139 BC.

Now about Vedic age, first we need to understand what actually Vedic age is, as stated here:

The Vedic Period or the Vedic Age refers to that time period when the Vedic Sanskrit texts were composed in India. The society that emerged during that time is known as the Vedic Period, or the Vedic Age, Civilization. The Vedic Civilization flourished between the 1500 BC and 500 BC on the Indo-Gangetic Plains of the Indian subcontinent.

So if you refer the above passage it conveys that during this period the Sanskrit texts were composed (Smriti) before that it existed (as Vedas are eternal) but were not composed, hence that period is termed as Vedic Age.

Difference between Shruti & Smriti: Shruti is “that which has been heard” and is canonical, consisting of revelation and unquestionable truth, and is considered eternal. It refers mainly to the Vedas themselves. Smriti is “that which has been remembered” supplementary and may change over time.

So basically the period which is before this Vedic period is termed as Pre-vedic period.

About Indus Valley age as stated here:

The Indus Valley Civilization was an ancient civilization located in what is Pakistan and northwest India today, on the fertile flood plain of the Indus River and its vicinity. Evidence of religious practices in this area date back approximately to 5500 BCE. Farming settlements began around 4000 BCE and around 3000 BCE there appeared the first signs of urbanization. By 2600 BCE, dozens of towns and cities had been established, and between 2500 and 2000 BCE the Indus Valley Civilization was at its peak.

So if you analyze everything closely you can conclude that basically it started during Dwapar Yuga and continued in Kali Yuga as well.

Answer 2

In kalibangam there are fire altars observed and all other places situated at saraswati river show distingtion from other IVC sites.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kalibangan

And the migration theory

In a treaty between the Hittites and the Mitanni (between Suppiluliuma and Shattiwaza , c. 1380 BC), the deities Mitra , Varuna , Indra, and Nasatya ( Ashvins) are invoked. Kikkuli's horse training text (circa 1400 BC) includes technical terms such as aika ( Vedic Sanskrit eka , one), tera (tri , three), panza ( pañca, five), satta (sapta, seven), na (nava , nine), vartana (vartana, round). The numeral aika "one" is of particular importance because it places the superstrate in the vicinity of Indo-Aryan proper ( Vedic Sanskrit eka , with regular contraction of /ai/ to [eː]) as opposed to Indo-Iranian or early Iranian (which has *aiva ; compare Vedic eva "only") in general.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mitanni-Aryan

Means aryans seperated from iranians then how this much early there are evidenced?

Apart there is a continuity theory put apart of invasion because of no proof found:—https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indus_Valley_Civilization

Indian culture is too old and all this is proto and pre-historic.

Answer 3

Vedas are said to be eternal as nobody knows when they were constructed who was the creator of hymns or shlokas.Many rishis have contributed init.Sice in India tradition was to pass on knowledge orally through generations to generations .proofs of its age and evidences were difficult to get.what we see today names associated with Rigveda and subsequent vedas are the authers who wrote it may be the period of 1500BC but this period ca not be associated as vedic period.compilation of vedas was done in this period which we know as post vedic period and later on puranic period. Vedic period is older then Indus civilization .nobody can say may be 8000 or10000 BC.as it has mentioned Saraswati river many places as great river.which got dried in nearly 1900 BC end of indus civilization wgich was a perennial river running from himalayas 8000 BC. There are evidences of mehergarh city of 8000BC having vedic civilization even Rakhi garhi excavation in Haryana has nearly 7000 BC hisyory. Then came Indus or harappan period but somewhere is vedic civilisation .lateron jainism and other periods came in to existence .earlier vedic period was simple but later on post vedic period saw puranic literature known as puranic period and upanishads which were the simplified forns of vedas. Satyuga, treta dwapar and kaliyuga were somewhere related to astronomical calculations