I've read multiple times that the Vedas are considered to be without error, and I was wondering whether the same thing is thought of the Upanishads that are often claimed to be part of the Vedas.

  • The upanishads are considered to be part of the vedas, the very last part, hence the word "veda-anta". They are as apauresheya as the rest of the veda. – Nishkam Razdan Jul 31 '18 at 17:15
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    Yes, Upanishads are apaurusheya equally because they are constitutional part of the Vedas. – brahma jijnasa Jul 31 '18 at 18:01
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    See this Q: hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/18989/… .. Actually ur Q is a duplicate of that one. – Rickross Aug 1 '18 at 5:52
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    Upanishads are NOT revelations and hence dont have specific devata and rishis for every verse. That is why its verses are not called as mantras. Further the count of upanishad have always kept increasing and we have about 200 upanishad now. – Rakesh Joshi Aug 1 '18 at 6:13

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