4

The Manusmriti says:

The Ṛgveda is sacred to the gods and the Yajurveda is human; the Sāmaveda has been declared to be related to the Pitṛs; hence its sound is impure.—(124)

This is odd because Krishna says in Bhagavad Gita 10.22:

enter image description here

Angiras also says in his Dharma Shastra:

Aṅgiras (Caturvargacintāmani, Paribhaṣa-Kāla, Adhyāya 14).—‘In as much as sacrifices to the deities of the cremation-ground are offered with the Sāmaveda,—the sound of that Veda is unclean.

And also:

in Smṛticandrikā (Saṃskāra, p. 160), as stating the reason for what has been declared in the preceding verse;—in Puruṣārthacintāmaṇi (p. 443);—and in Hemādri (Kāla, p. 768),—in all these to the same effect.

However, Medhatithi says:

The sound of the Sāmaveda should not he understood, by this, to be really unclean; all that is meant is that, just as Veda should not be recited in the presence of an unclean substance, so should it not he recited in the presence of the Sāma-chant; it is on the ground of this similarity to ‘unclean substances’ that the sound of Sāma has been said to be ‘unclean.’

But what is the point of comparing it to unclean things and even deliberately stating that it's impure, when you don't actually mean it is impure?

  • 3
    All of the stanzas of the Soma Veda except for 75 are entirely from the RIg Veda. The Soma Veda is only chants used in the Soma sacrifice. As the Soma is used only in the Soma sacrifice, in relation to the Rig and Yajur Veda, they are not as 'clean'. BUT the Soma 'is' Veda. Krishna says that of the vedas He is the Soma because the Soma is the simplest yet most exact of the Vedas. – Swami Vishwananda Jan 21 at 5:05
  • Could you provide the original sanskrit versions? – commonman Jan 21 at 8:58
  • 1
    @ParthaBanerjee Here is the original Sanskrit of the Manusmriti: ṛgvedo devadaivatyo yajurvedastu mānuṣaḥ | sāmavedaḥ smṛtaḥ pitryastasmāt tasyāśucirdhvaniḥ || 124 || – Ikshvaku Jan 21 at 15:45
  • 2
    Shabda means word. Dhwani means sound – commonman Jan 21 at 16:00
  • 1
    @Ikshvaku yes . And i think vedas can never be impure. something is being misunderstood. – commonman Jan 22 at 16:21

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .