No Opinions. Only simple scripture fact based answers. Refer to line that indicates Proselytization?

NOTE: I'd like to bolster this question more (dont mind making it community/ wiki types if needed at some point), but the thought came to me while trying to find basis for "conversion and preaching" in scriptures of various faiths and I cant seem to find any root for this or heard of it in Sanatana pathways. And I did not want to lose track of these thoughts given that it's 2 am.

Any original root scriptures have lines to proselytize to Sanatana Dharma - Eternal way? Like Matthew 28:19?

Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:


Some may point to the following question but it's not the same and does not lead towards what I am trying to get towards. Any scriptural evidence of the same in ancient text.

Is it true that one can not convert to Hinduism from any other religion or vice versa?

The word Hindu as we know is an outsider's labeling of the people living near/ past the river Indu.

This had a 2/3 part question and lot of gibberish & speculative insight, but the base of my question and premise has not been cleared in answers, nor did the question ask it properly.

This seems to talk all about conversion dynamics & conversation today. From or to Hindu; not as per "ancient scripture" and whether it even looks at "preaching and conversion" as something.

I'm also pointing flaws with the selected answer, again its objective was to satisfy a half baked question so what else could it do.



No, there is no bar in converting from any religion to Hinduism or vice-versa.

Vedas speak about Mlecchas as someone who is not Vedic and not Indian. Basically, mlecchas are people who speak an illegible language and not Sanskrit. The concept of geography, religion and language was all mixed with each other to be indistinguishable.

Hinduism doesn't have a conversion ritual unlike similar ceremony in Christianity or Islam which causes the inadvertent feeling of disbelief in the believer about his conversion.

Conversion only requires that person to accept the Hindu way of life and leading a Dharmic life.

Ref 1. Mlecchas in Early India [/BLOCKQUOTE]

  • Flaw in saying "no bar" for "conversion" is saying that "conversion even exists" as a concept or process. Because it was said somewhere that every Human being is a "born Hindu" (I cringe to use that word.. ). Conversion, does not exist.

  • No Ritual does not mean or quantify if the notion or concept of "preach" and "convert" exisits on way or another? It leaves it gray

  • Then says "Conversion only requires... etc" There is no scriptural basis for this; please point to which ancient Sanatana scripture even mentions "conversion" or "by accepting and leading" as a way of conferring "converted" title or status to one?

Even the selected answer and primary answers are missing the root, does the "notion" or "concept" of Preaching & Conversion even exist in the scriptures.

Because when we say the following:

  • Veda = Knowledge
  • Upanishad = Sitting close to the Master/ Guru etc.

Where is there the notion of preaching or conversion? We always were the place of "seekers", not "preachers".

Vedas, It's all about knowledge of Material world and Non material/ Spiritual world and the correlation in between.

Do not speculate or give me some modern Indology version. Deep authentic scriptural basis similar to this that exists or atleast does seem to now in Christianity.

Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:


So, I ask.

Any root scriptural basis or notions for Preaching & Conversion to Sanatana Dharma - Eternal way? Like Matthew 28:19?

PS: Found a lot of answers for similar thing on Quora and seems to echo the notion that "Conversion" does not exist under Sanatana way.


  • 2
    the goal of any religion is to 'convert' people from Bad to Good, show them morals and why they should live by it, either through reward or punishment. To say that Sanatana Dharma does not allow conversion, is just silly. Anyone can follow the dharma mentioned in scriptures, just like they can follow the commandments or hadiths. But we don't proselytize as much as islam/christianity, and any 'conversion' nowadays is only a conversion-back to Hindus, since they were converted by muslims/christians first.
    – ram
    Apr 30, 2019 at 23:06
  • 1
    Because it was said somewhere that every Human being is a "born Hindu" - Where is that stated? Conversion, does not exist. I think your argument is not valid. Just because it may be true that every human is a born Hindu, it doesn't meant that every human is aware of that since we know that many people do not recognize themselves as Hindus. So it makes sense for them to convert to become a Hindu. May 1, 2019 at 0:30
  • Btw, we are not supposed to comment or answer other people's answers in the question. Your Q most likely will get closed. Those remarks you posted here in your Q you better post there as your answer. May 1, 2019 at 0:35
  • @brahmajijnasa I pointed to the flaws, improper articulation of the other question as it deals in speculative way not seeking a scriptural basis as I am looking for one to find it, if one exists
    – Alex S
    May 1, 2019 at 4:52
  • 2
    at the time of the vedas there were no other religions - so your question cannot be answered, as there was nothing to convert to or from.... May 1, 2019 at 5:16

1 Answer 1


These may be some verses in Gita:


9.31 Soon he becomes righteous and attains to eternal peace; O Arjuna, proclaim thou for certain that My devotee never perishes.

These may be some such verses in Bhagavat:


2nd skanda, Chapter 4

(18) The people of old Bharata, Europe, southern India, Greece, Pulkas'a [a province], Âbhîra [part of old Sind], S'umbha [another province], Turkey, Mongolia and many more entangled in sin, immediately find purification when they take to the shelter of His devotees. Him, the powerful Lord Vishnu, I offer my respectful obeisances.

Motilal Banarsidass translation adds this footnote on the above verse: https://archive.org/details/BhagavataPuranaMotilalEnglish/page/n175

For the role of Bhagavatism in the social absoprtion of foreigners vide R.K. Mukherjee's Hist. of Ind. Civilization Vol. I. pp. 230-249.

May be you may look at this book to get idea of absorption of foreigners into Bhagavatism.


10th skanda, chapter 31

9.The nectar of Your talks as described by the great thinkers drive away the sins of the individual souls who suffer [in this material world]. Charged with spiritual power they are a blessing for everyone who hears them. Oh how beneficent are the persons who with song spread those talks all over the world

  • The translations from Srimad-Bhagavatam that you have quoted seems totally wrong and misleading. Please consult Motilal Banarasidas translations.The conversion is absurd in hinduism.
    – user17294
    May 1, 2019 at 12:35
  • @log Tran - Have you looked at the question? Is there a mandate to preach & convert in original scripture - assuming there was something else known to convert from? I’ve already mentioned Iskcon & few others do of their own accord.
    – Alex S
    May 1, 2019 at 14:39
  • Where is there a mandate to go “preach” to “convert” over here? Justify the answer in context with questions. Every system says surrender to X & you’ll be taken care of. I am the only way; say both Krsna & Krist. Where does Krishna say, go to all nations & preach & convert? He only says my devotee will be taken care of. Doesn’t say a devotee must go and acquire disciples.
    – Alex S
    May 2, 2019 at 5:14
  • Log Tran, these verses show the broad mindedness of Bhagavata dharma to embrace all and some one may take inspiration from these verses and preach. But they don't mandate preaching as such. May 2, 2019 at 6:39
  • @AlexS u are right, none of the above verses mandate one to go out and preach..
    – Log Tran
    May 2, 2019 at 12:20

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