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Is it really possible for someone to merely wish to perform papa (or punya) and then proceed to do it? E.g., if one person likes to do papa, s/he can harm someone. However, the desire to ham someone should also arise. If s/he has the opportunity to harm someone or put someone in trouble but doesn't have the desire, it won't work. So, both the situation and the desire should arise.

Scripture says each and every situation is due to karma phala (karmic reward). One cannot harm another person who doesn't have that kind of papa in their account (e.g., a girl's karma account in case of a rape). If a man really has the opportunity and the desire to harm another it simply means that the karma phala of afflicted person is allowing the act of rape to happen.

Also, according to scripture, each and every enjoyment presupposes punya and by harming others or say stealing things, if one gets pleasure it must be due to his previously accumulated punya. Without punya, he cannot really enjoy the incident. So is he really committing a sin and gaining new papa or simply using up the punya already in his account?

put on hold as off-topic by Ankit Sharma, Parabrahman Jyoti, Sarvabhouma, Mr_Green, Krishna Shweta Sep 19 at 14:15

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    Even though it was for Dharma, Pandavas had to worship Lord Shiva to atone the sins of committing gotra hatya and Brāhmanahatya. pApa is not a thing one should strive for. Let the parabrhma decide what to do with whom. – TheLittleNaruto Aug 5 at 12:25
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    According to Shrimad Bhagvad Gita Chapter 16 Verse 21: There are three gates leading to the hell of self-destruction for the soul—lust, anger, and greed.. If you have a "desire" to "rape", it isn't merely a desire instead it is lust. And you should avoid that if you don't want to be at Hell's gate. – Aman Aug 5 at 15:09
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    Don't understand the downvotes, this is an excellent question directed at the foundations of the karma theory! – sv. Aug 7 at 1:07
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    I don't like the example taken in the question. It talks about heinous crime. " if one person likes to do papa, he can go and rape a woman." It is never okay. One can't do that. I feel we should be careful even while taking examples. These are sensitive matters. Asking and answering anything regarding crime will be a problem because if the answer says yes we will be saying "You got raped. It is your prarabdha." It is an insult. – Sarvabhouma Aug 7 at 4:53
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's trying to dignify unethical acts. – Ankit Sharma Sep 17 at 8:47
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I am highlighting the following part from the question, which I found to be crucial.

Also, according to scripture, each and every enjoyment presupposes punya and at the time of rape, if one gets pleasure it must be due to his previously accumulated punya. Without punya, he cannot really enjoy the act. So is he really committing a sin and gaining new papa or simply using up the punya already in his account?

The OP wrongly classified the issue into Punya and Paapa. In my opinion, it is according to karma (stored merit). It is generally classified into 3 categories.

The bowman has already sent an arrow and it has left his hands. He cannot recall it. He is about to shoot another arrow. And, has bundle of arrows in the quiver on his back

1.The bundle of arrows in the quiver on his back is the sanchita;

2.the arrow he has shot is prArabdha; and

3.the arrow which he is about to shoot from his bow is agami.

Of these, he has perfect control over the sanchita and the agami/Kriyamana, but no control over prArabdha. He must surely work out his prarabdha. The past which has begun to take effect he has to experience.


Let us come to the question part. There is desire to rape and situation permits. It comes under the category of sanchita, but not prArabdha. So the act under sanchita can be avoided.

There is another dimension to this issue. That is called "Dharma", which is the base of the 4 Puruṣārthas.

Even if the desire is there and situation is permitting, one has to think based on Dharma. What will be consequences of such act either to the man or woman? Will such lead to another cycle of rape and enjoyment, being roles reversed?, etc.

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    I think your answer is only addressing the rapist part, but what about the rape victim? ("the desire to rape a girl it simply means that the girl's karma phala is allowing the act of rape to happen") – so the girl was meant to be raped due to actions of her past life? What must have the person done in their past to get raped in the current lifetime? While the rapist's action maybe unjustified, the girl being raped must be justified according to karma theory? – sv. Aug 7 at 1:11
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    The girl is not in a position to defend herself. Justification in whatever manner will not suffice. So the advice is for rapist only@sv. – srimannarayana k v Aug 7 at 1:16
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    To advance the argument further, the victim was meant to be born as a lady, less powerful than her perpetrator. That she cannot defend herself is also coded into her karma. – sv. Aug 8 at 14:57

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