Narada Smriti 12.78 Intercourse is permitted with a wanton woman, who belongs to another than the Brahman caste, or a prostitute, or a female slave, or a female not restrained by her master (nishkâsinî), if these women belong to a lower caste than oneself; but with a woman of superior caste, intercourse is prohibited.

Why are men allowed to have sex outside the institution of marriage but women are not?

Nithin Sridhar, an Indic scholar, in his blog on the Hindu view of adultery writes:

The definition of adultery was confined to:

1) Men—either married or unmarried– having sexual relationship with married women

2) Married women having sexual relationship outside of marriage.

Is this not misogynistic?

  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat. – Pandya Jun 8 '20 at 10:26
  • The Narada Smriti is primarily a book of law as per this link rather than anything religious: books.google.com/… The wiki article also describes it as such. Hence this question would not have an answer in a religious hindu site. – user1952500 Jun 8 '20 at 22:28
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    Why is this closed as a duplicate of the other? The title question here is asking "Why is the definition of adultery different for men and women?" whereas the other question is about authenticity of a particular verse. Both are separate things. – sv. Jun 9 '20 at 18:06
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    @user1952500 Hindu "Law" Book means Hindu dharma shastra. It's a religious text. The verse quoted is from a chapter titled "THE MUTUAL DUTIES OF HUSBAND AND WIFE". – sv. Jun 9 '20 at 18:09
  • Why did you delete your other question? (Does Padma Purana ask Devadasis to indulge in prostitution?) – sv. Jun 9 '20 at 18:13

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