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The word nirvāṇa literally means extinguishment. It implies the extinguishment of self. Bhagwat Geeta also mentions the word,

लभन्ते ब्रह्मनिर्वाणमृषय: क्षीणकल्मषा:|
छिन्नद्वैधा यतात्मान: सर्वभूतहिते रता: || 5.25||

कामक्रोधवियुक्तानां यतीनां यतचेतसाम् |
अभितो ब्रह्मनिर्वाणं वर्तते विदितात्मनाम् || 5.26||

But some Buddhists claim that this word is not present in Vedas but in BG that makes the fact of Bhagwat Geeta being post-Buddhist possible. I am looking for the usuage of the word in Vedas or Upanishads or scripture that predates Bhagwat Geeta.

P.S: In any case, absence of the word in Vedas doesn't imply BG to be post-Buddhist. Nirvana is a sanskrit word that means extinguishment & Brahman Nirvana simply means extinguishment in Brahman, etc. So, it's neither surprising to find the word in BG nor does it imply BG to be post-Buddhist.

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    There is a Upanishad named Nirvana Upanishad , it is one among 20 Sanyasa Upanishad. Since Sanyasa came into picture post Buddhism, so there is a possibility that the word may have taken from Buddhism in the context of liberation. Yeah sure the word is already present in Sanskrit; but the usage not sure if it's been used like Buddhism before. – TheLittleNaruto Oct 24 '20 at 9:30
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    The word appears in Mandukya Upanishad as far as you want it from main upanishads. But since it's chronology is difficult to resolve according to sources , I think it is not the best candidate for your query. – SwiftPushkar Oct 24 '20 at 10:43
  • @SwiftPushkar Please answer. – ㅤㅤㅤㅤㅤ Oct 26 '20 at 8:11
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    The word nirvāṇa does not occur in any of the ancient Upanishads (including Mandukya Upanishad mentioned in above comment). But as mentioned in the question, Bhagavad Gita is pre-Buddha because there is not even a slight hint of existence of Buddhism. Gita mentions other systems such as Sankhya and Yoga, but not Buddhism. Since Buddhism was considered such a big influence, if Gita was post-Buddha, it should say either positive or negative things about Buddhism. This itself shows Gita is pre-Buddha. – RamAbloh Dec 6 '20 at 0:52
  • Interestingly according to van Buitenen the use of the term"Nirvana" was not confined to Buddhism only at the time the Bhagavad Gita.Need to find where he stated as such , but so far not been able to. – SwiftPushkar Dec 11 '20 at 12:19
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I don't have enough reputation to comment but 4.4.6 of the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad seems to describe Nirvāṇa. Since Brihadaranyaka Upanishad is believed to be composed around [700 BCE][1] and Buddhism did not begin at least until [5th to 4th century BCE][1], Nirvāṇa should be considered as a pre-Buddhist term. Also, maybe the exact meaning we attribute to the word changed over time but the word in itself has pre-Buddhist origins.

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