2

I found this

Brahmapurāṇa (Aparārka, p. 97).—‘On the death of her husband, or on her having abandoned her husband, a woman may beget a son from a man of her caste. If she is a child-widow or has been forcibly abandoned by her husband, she shall go through the sacrament of marriage again, with any other man. But this remarriage of women, or the begetting of a son from the brother-in-law, or the freedom of women, should not be permitted during the Kali age; as during this age, men are inclined to be sinful.’

Is this thing written in BrahmaPurana? Can anyone cite the verse correctly?

Is this (women not being given freedom) thing also written in some other scriptures?

Improve this question

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1

Such discriminatory verses in scripture are invalid and should not be followed.

If a holy act is against the interest of other members of the society, it should not be practiced. It is Dharma which is the source of Artha and even of Kama.

Kurma Purana I.2.54

It doesn't matter if there are discriminatory verses in other scriptures. They are all invalid.

Improve this answer
4
  • 1
    Vouch. If there's a controversial verse that seems disgusting or should not be practiced by human society, i.e where Vishnu Purana says to marry a woman right before her maturity; it should be ignored. Even Adi Shankaracharya said that even if a thousand Shlokas says that fire is cold and does not illuminate, it does not change the fact that fire is hot and does illuminate.
    – HariharaVishnumShivah
    Commented Nov 28, 2022 at 22:10
  • 1
    I agree, also I think there is sometimes deliberate obfuscation of info in Hindu texts, I think some of the Tantra & Puran say this in several places.
    – veganenvironmentalist
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 10:06
  • You didn't even understand the verse lol. This context is regarding Kaliyuga. Where the moral degradation of a good chunk of men falling to lust means a woman should have a pious male companion protect her, hence the no freedom part is better described as no independence.
    – Haridasa
    Commented Feb 23 at 0:23
  • @HariharaVishnumShivah I suggest looking closely at the context of why such was done and understanding that marriage in older societies was to gain a husband who can adequately provide for and protect the bride from danger and provide for her indeed. Preference doesn't matter as per Vedic times. With this mindset look at the ages.
    – Haridasa
    Commented Feb 23 at 0:25

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .