I have heard that Vedas used Sanskrit language.

In my view, other language may been used to describe Vedas in early days. Or Sanskrit may have been developed for other purpose besides to describe Vedas and later they might be blended together.

Can anyone clarify on this?

  • My guess is Sanskrit. It may not be having script in written form, but it should have been recitable. That's how the Veda would have been spoken and that's the reason Sanskrit is called Devbhasha.
    – iammilind
    Sep 16, 2015 at 4:44
  • I think Sanskrit was developed before the organizztion of vedas. But knowledge or say belief described in vedas can be earlier of sanskrit. Possibly later it was translated in Sanskrit in specific manner (छन्दोबद्ध्)
    – compyutech
    Apr 27, 2017 at 17:15

2 Answers 2


Nothing was developed first, but the Vedas are eternal and were pronounced in Sanskrit which is then, therefore, also eternal language just like Vedas are eternal because the Vedas are in Sanskrit. This is a very simple point to understand.
So both are eternal, and when something is eternal it makes no sense to say that there was something before and something later because eternity implies that it has no beginning in time. Putting it in other words, when something has no beginning in time it makes no sense to speak of "before" and "later".

That the Vedas are eternal is mentioned in many places in the scriptures, here is an example from the Manu-smriti, chapter 12:

  1. "The Veda is the eternal eye of the manes, gods, and men"
    1. "The eternal lore of the Veda upholds all created beings"
  • I wanted some scientific answer not personal opinion or religious belief like "Vedas are eternal" just because they are being mentioned Manu-smriti.
    – Barun
    Sep 17, 2015 at 5:12
  • @Barun Well, I gave you the answer from the traditional point of view, the way a Hindu tradition would explain those things. You have not in your question precisely stated what kind of answer you're interested in. Btw, it's not a bad idea to hear the traditional answer also because the opinion of the tradition and the academic community regarding the origin and the age of the Vedas differ greatly. How those opinions differ I've already been described in the answer to another question at hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/7230/… Sep 17, 2015 at 14:15
  • I wanted some scientific answer (like some reference text that depict use of Sanskrit in other way or Vedas in other language).
    – Barun
    Sep 17, 2015 at 15:01

The mantras of the Vedas were heard first (Sruti) in deep meditation. The Sanskrit language was developed later based on these:

Q: Guruji, why are all mantras in Sanskrit? What is so special about Sanskrit?

Sri Sri Ravi Shankar: No, Sanskrit was derived later. Mantras were already there. The words of the mantra were already there; later on the languages was created. Not only in Sanskrit, but when you go deeper into all languages, you will find all these mantras.

Excerpts from a Q&A: http://wisdomfromsrisriravishankar.blogspot.in/2011/06/whole-world-is-made-from-that-one.html

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